Answer Keys For Week 1 Assignments PDF
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BCBR MCQs With Answers
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Basic BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH Cycle 1, 2 & 3 MCQs with Answers Assignment 1 1) Which of the following ar
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Basic BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH Cycle 1, 2 & 3 MCQs with Answers Assignment 1 1) Which of the following areas can be included in health research? i. Improving the health of the population. ii. Predicting progression of a disease in a patient iii. Prevention of various diseases iv. To explore various societal, community based and programmatic interventions for disease prevention and control a) i and ii b) i, ii and iv c) All of the above d) None of the above 2) What is appropriate for sample and sample size? a) Should be representative of the population [External validity or generalizability] b) Should be adequate [power to draw meaningful inferences] c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) Neither 'a' nor 'b' 3) Which of the following statements are correct regarding defining inclusion and exclusion criteria in a study protocol? a) They should be vague because this will allow greater and easy enrollment b) They should be very specific c) They should be very large in number d) It is not important to define exclusion criteria in a clinical trial 4) Which of the following are examined as part of regulatory review? a) Information regarding transfer of funds and utilization of funds b) Shipment of samples and transfer of data outside the country c) Sharing and protection of intellectual property d) All of the above 5) Which of the following statements is not true in case of pilot study? a) They are conducted for developing and testing adequacy of research instruments b) They establish whether the sampling frame and technique are effective c) Ethics committee approves the main study only after successful completion of the pilot study d) They are small scale studies 6) Before initiating a study involving primary data collection, the Principal Investigator must ensure that various approvals are obtained. Which of the following approvals is absolutely mandatory? a) Scientific committee approval b) Ethics committee approval c) Technical committee approval d) Regulatory authority approval 7) Which is the best source of information on 'effect modifiers' while exploring cause and effect relationship in a research study? a) Deductive thinking b) Thorough review of literature c) Intelligent guessing d) Discussing with experienced researchers 8) The policy makers want to know whether introduction of pentavalent vaccine in the national program is resulting in reduction in the number of Hemophilus influenza cases. Which of the following studies will they have to conduct to find an answer? a) Case-control study b) Field trial c) Ecological study d) Case series 9) What is true about Confounders? a) They affect both study variable as well as outcome b) Their effect can be minimized by proper study design and through stratified analysis c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) None of the above 10) Which of the following is not a type of study design? a) Qualitative study b) Observational study c) Retrospective study d) Pilot study 11) Any systematic error in the design, conduct or analysis of a study that results in an erroneous Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 1 estimate of an exposure's effect on the risk of disease is called: a) Confounding b) Bias c) Interaction d) Stratification 12) Which of the following is not part of ethics review of a project? a) Informed consent document and procedure b) Competence of researcher and institute conducting research c) Sharing and protection of intellectual property d) Care and support during and after completion of research 13) A study was conducted to assess the extrapyramidal side effects of a new antipsychotic drug in patients with schizophrenia. Many of these patients were smokers and some of them were on anticholinergic drugs. What was the role of the anticholinergic drugs in this study? a) Confounder b) Random Variable c) Effect Modifier d) Independent Variable 14) Before initiating a study involving primary data collection, the Principal Investigator must ensure that various approvals are obtained. Which of the following approvals is absolutely mandatory? a) Scientific committee approval b) Ethics committee approval c) Technical committee approval d) Regulatory authority approval 15) The policy makers want to know whether introduction of a new rotavirus vaccine in the national immunization programme is resulting in reduction of morbidity and mortality from rotavirus disease. Which of the following studies will they have to conduct to find an answer? a) Case-control study b) Ecological study c) Field randomized trial d) Case-series 16) What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the random error? a) It increases the random error b) It has no effect on the random error c) It reduces the random error d) None of the above 17) Which of the following will best describe the scientific inquiry that seeks to understand the acceptability and functionality of a health program? a) Basic science research b) Translational research c) Clinical research d) Implementation research 18) The following statements describe confounding and effect modification. Which of the statement is/are correct? a) In a study of relationship between coffee drinking and oro-pharyngeal cancer; smoking is a confounder b) In a study to explore relationship between hepatitis B infection and post-infection hepatic sequelae, habit of alcohol drinking acts as an effect modifier and patients with this habit may be excluded from the study c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Correct d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Wrong 19) Issues regarding shipment of samples and transfer of data outside the country are examined by: a) Regulatory review b) Ethics review c) Scientific review Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 1 d) None 20) Which of the following disciplines contribute to health research? a) Bio-medical research b) Biostatistics c) Social science research d) All of the above 21) Which of the following best describes a study done in a laboratory setting using animals? a) Translational research b) Bench-based research c) Theoretical research d) Preventive research 22) Which of the following review is NOT essential before initiating a clinical trial? a) Scientific review b) Peer review c) Regulatory review d) Ethics review 23) Which of the following is NOT a type of study design? a) Qualitative study b) Observational study c) Retrospective study d) Translational study 24) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding errors in a health research? a) Random error is due to chance b) Systematic error is due to bias c) Random errors can be eliminated by improving study design d) Bias distorts the study results in one direction 25) State whether true or false. Assigning roles and responsibilities to the team members is one of the fundamental principles of a research a) True b) False 26) Health research is usually focused on which of the following areas? a) Estimation of disease burden in a population b) Prevention of common diseases in the community c) Evaluation of public health programs d) All the above 27) Which of the following is NOT a component of a research study? a) Setting up the institute scientific committee b) Calculating sample size c) Development of a study tool d) Framing the research question 28) A researcher wants to study the relationship between COVID-19 infection in pregnancy and birth weight. Currently, there is no evidence on this topic. Which of the following options is the scope of this health research? a) Verifying and confirming known information b) Getting additional or new information c) Evaluating ongoing programs d) All of the above 29) Which of the following is NOT a critical consideration in planning a health research? a) Adequate justification b) Clear and focused research question c) Standard case definitions d) Financial gain 30) Identify the CORRECT statement about implementation of a research a) Research findings must be approved by the funder b) Research finding must be error free c) Adequate sample size is a prerequisite d) Pilot study can be done during data analysis stage _________ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 2 1) Which of the following is an element of life cycle of research? a) Identify data needs and spell out the research question b) Formulate the objective and design the study c) Draw conclusion and give recommendation to stakeholders d) All of the above 2) Which of the following verbs is preferably used in the statement of objectives of an analytical research study? a) Estimate b) Determine c) Study d) Describe 3) Source(s) of research question is/are a) Published literature b) Being alert to new ideas c) Careful observation and teaching d) All of the above 4) Which of the following is stated mainly for statistical purpose? a) Research question b) Objectives c) Research hypothesis d) All of the above 5) If your objective is to estimate the prevalence of a health problem in a community in 2019, Identify the type of research question this study is addressing a) Analytical research question b) Descriptive research question c) Hypothetical research question d) Experimental research question 6) What is the first step in the life cycle of research? a) Spell out the research question b) Formulate the objective of the study c) Identify the data needs d) Choose the study design 7) A clear research question facilitates to do the following a) Choose the most optimal design b) Identify who should be included as study population c) Specify the outcomes that should be measured d) All of the above 8) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) A good research question should be Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and Relevant b) A good research question should be in epidemiological terms c) A good research question facilitates to choose optimal design d) A good research question will focus on one issue 9) The verb "estimate" is used in the objective of analytical research studies a) True b) False 10) The process of refining the "ideas" into research questions begins with general uncertainty about a health issue and narrow down to a specific, concrete researchable issue a) True b) False 11) Which of the following statement is incorrect about a good research question? a) Research question should advance scientific knowledge, improve practice, influence policy b) Research question should be approved by the ethics committee c) Research question should confirms, refutes or extends previous findings Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 2 d) Feasibility should not be a criterion while developing research question 12) All the following are characteristic of good research hypothesis EXCEPT a) Research hypothesis should be simple b) Research hypothesis should be devoid of any ambiguity about study participants and variables c) Research hypothesis should be focused on primary objective d) Research hypothesis should be written once the study is completed 13) Which of the following verb is used in the statement of objective of a descriptive research study? a) Estimate b) Determine c) Examine d) Compare 14) A research question states about what the results of the study might ultimately contribute to that particular field of science a) True b) False 15) Purely descriptive research questions do not require a hypothesis a) True b) False 16) Identify the type of research question if the objective of a study is "To determine the effect of tobacco cessation services on tuberculosis treatment outcomes among patients with tuberculosis under National Tuberculosis Elimination Program"? a) Descriptive research question b) Hypothetical research question c) Analytical research question d) Experimental research question 17) As per the following objectives a hypothesis should be stated for which study? a) To determine the association of maternal smoking during pregnancy with respiratory infectious disease morbidity and mortality in infants b) To estimate the lifetime prevalence of mental health morbidities among elderly people in India c) To describe the pattern of physical activity among school going children aged 6-18 years d) To describe the temporal and spatial trends of mortality due to cardiovascular diseases, by age and sex in India during 2009-2019 18) All the following are components of 'FINER ' criteria for a research question EXCEPT a) Feasible b) Reliable c) Novel d) Ethical 19) Which is the last step in the life cycle of research? a) Spell out the research question b) Formulate the objective of the study c) Formulate recommendations d) Choose the study design 20) The following are the steps in framing a research question. I. Review of state-of-art information II. Define measurable exposures & outcomes III. Raise a question IV. Decide worth investigating by peerreview Choose the correct sequence of framing a research question from below. a) I, II, III, IV b) II, IV, III, I c) I, III, IV, II d) III, I, II, IV 21) A clear research question is required in order to facilitate the following: Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 2 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) a) To choose an optimal study design b) To identify the outcomes that need to be measured c) To decide when the outcomes need to be measured d) All the above Characteristics of a good hypothesis are all, EXCEPT: a) There should be no ambiguity about the study variables b) It should be stated ‘a priori’ c) It can be revised based on the study findings d) It should specify one exposure and one outcome Which of the following is NOT an ideal source of a research question? a) Reviewing the published literature b) Attending conferences where latest findings are shared c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic d) Mining existing datasets for research question Which of the following is TRUE for a ‘Descriptive Research Question’? a) Involves observations to measure a quantity b) Involves comparison groups c) Tests the efficacy of interventions d) Requires hypothesis testing Which of the following characteristics best describe a good research question? a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant State whether true or false. A research study is conducted to estimate the seroprevalence of COVID-19 in Ahmedabad city during April-June 2020. This is an example of analytical research question. a) True b) False 27) Which of the following statement about study objective/s is FALSE? a) Objectives are stated in scientific terms b) Objectives can be primary and secondary c) Each objective is written using multiple verbs d) Objectives should be specific 28) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling out the research question’ is followed by a) Preparing data collection instrument b) Formulating study objectives c) Collecting data d) Formulating recommendation 29) How can the given study objective be improved? “To understand the anaemia in pregnancy” a) Using appropriate action verb b) Specifying the outcome measure c) Specifying the study setting and time period d) All the above 30) Which of the following is NOT a step in framing an ideal research question? a) Literature review b) Peer review c) Broadening the initial question d) Defining measurable outcomes ______________ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 3 1) The ability to apply the principles of analysis to identify those studies which are unbiased and valid is called as a) Critical appraisal b) Information seeking c) Information management d) Systematic Review 2) A __________ is a collection of articles, abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, citations etc. that is organized so that it can easily be accessed while doing literature review a) Database b) Critical appraisal c) Hard disk d) Index 3) Why should we need to do a literature review? a) Save yourself from work b) Know the subject matter better c) Suggest new research topics, questions and methods d) All of the above 4) The process of scanning the literature efficiently using manual or computerized methods to identify a set of potentially useful articles and books is called as a) Information seeking b) Critical appraisal c) Database management d) Information retrieval 5) In the Boolean search strategy AND tells that database that you want records that contain all the words you specify a) True b) False 6) Which of the following is unethical while writing a Literature Review? a) The contents from the studies should be presented honestly b) The contents from the studies should not be distorted c) It is not necessary to address the weakness of the study in a scholarly manner d) Sources should be accurately documented 7) Critical appraisal is done in an organized and systematic manner a) True b) False 8) The process of identifying, within a large document collection, a subset of documents whose content is most relevant to user's need is called as a) Information retrieval b) Information management c) Systematic Review d) Narrative Review 9) The query system in the information retrieval process of literature review is a) User defined b) Provider defined c) Conditional d) Not structured 10) In the National Library of Medicine (NLM), MeSH means a) Medical Services Heading b) Medical Subject Heading c) Medical Subject Helpline d) Medicine Services Helpline 11) In literature review method of identifying studies which are unbiased and valid is known as critical appraisal. a) True b) False 12) Choose the correct sequence of the steps of systematically doing literature search from below a) Organize the information, identify the lacunae, develop the research question, synthesize the results Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 3 b) Identify the lacunae, develop the research question, synthesize the results, organize the information c) Develop the research question, synthesize the results, organize the information, identify the lacunae d) Organize information, synthesize the results, identify the lacunae, develop the research question 13) All the following about literature review is correct EXCEPT a) It identifies lacunae in the existing knowledge about a topic b) It saves valuable time for a researcher c) It helps the researcher in arriving the conclusion of a study d) It suggests the researcher about new research topics 14) While drafting a scientific manuscript, literature review is useful on the following section EXCEPT a) Introduction b) Methods c) Results d) Discussion 15) Which of the following about PubMed is incorrect? a) PubMed comprises more than 25 million citations for biomedical literature b) Citations may include links to full-text article from PubMed Central c) PubMed is developed and maintained by the National Centre for Biotechnology Information (NCBI), at the U.S. National Library of Medicine (NLM) d) PubMed is a paid service provider for searching of literature 16) All the following are examples of databases a) MEDLINE b) EMBASE c) CINAHL d) Google scholar 17) Literature searches are important to do at the start of a project; and do not need to continue throughout the project. a) True b) False 18) Which of the following search query should be used to find the articles on chest pain other than angina? a) Chest pain AND angina b) Chest pain OR angina c) Chest pain NOT angina d) Chest pain EXCEPT angina 19) A researcher wants to assess effects of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) on diabetes prognosis. For this, the researcher searches related articles in PubMed and Google scholar. This process is known as a) Information retrieval b) Indexing c) Critical appraisal d) Data management 20) Which of the following about MeSH is incorrect? a) MeSH thesaurus is controlled vocabulary produced by the National Library of Medicine b) It consists of sets of terms naming descriptors in a hierarchical structure that permits searching at various levels of specificity c) It is used for indexing and searching of biomedical and health-related information d) MeSH is used for EMBASE database 21) Which of the following is INCORRECT about literature review for a proposed study? a) Begins with a systematic literature search b) Involves critical appraisal of retrieved studies c) Presents existing knowledge concisely d) Guides the findings of the proposed study Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 3 22) A researcher conducts a review of literature to identify a set of potentially useful articles and books related to their research topic. This process is known as a) Indexing b) Critical appraisal c) Data management d) Information seeking 23) Literature review is a well thought out and organized search for all literature published on a particular topic in a library or online database. a) True b) False 24) Which of the following search query in PubMed will give relevant articles for the following question? “What is the burden of gastroenteritis among children?” a) Gastroenteritis OR children b) Gastroenteritis AND children c) Gastroenteritis BUT children d) Gastroenteritis NOT children 25) Which of the following Boolean operator will give the highest number of results when used between two given search terms? a) AND b) NOT c) OR d) ALL 26) A researcher wants to study the effect of physical activity on reduction of systolic blood pressure among patients with hypertension. The researcher has identified a subset of document which are most relevant to the research question within a large document collection. This process is known as a) Information management b) Critical appraisal c) Information retrieval d) Literature organization 27) The organized collection of articles, abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, and citations used for the purpose of literature review, is known as a) Database b) Data management c) Critical appraisal d) Index 28) Which of the following does not satisfy the ethical principles in conducting a literature review? a) Results of previous studies are presented without distortion b) Weaknesses of previous studies are highlighted c) Previous studies are accurately cited d) Reputation of study authors are questioned 29) For which of the following purpose is the Boolean operator ‘OR’ commonly used in literature search? a) Connecting synonyms of one key concept b) Connecting different key concepts c) Connecting keywords which need to be excluded d) Connecting keywords to narrow down the results 30) Medical Subject Headings is a controlled vocabulary thesaurus used for indexing articles in a) PubMed b) Google scholar c) Scopus d) Health on Net __________________ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 4 1) Which of the following must be considered while measuring occurrence of a disease? a) The number of people affected by the disease b) The population size from which the cases of disease arise c) The length of the time the population is followed d) All of the above 2) __________ is most useful for evaluating the impact of prevention programme a) Point prevalence b) Period prevalence c) Case fatality d) Incidence 3) Which one of the following statements is true? a) High cure rate can increase the prevalence of a disease b) Low case fatality can reduce the prevalence of a disease c) Both 'a' and 'b' are true d) High cure rate and high case fatality can reduce the prevalence of a disease 4) Measures of disease frequency a) Incidence b) Prevalence c) Birth rate d) 'a' and 'b' 5) A measure that reflects severity of an acute infectious disease a) Case fatality ratio b) Incidence rate c) Prevalence d) Mortality rate 6) Incidence data can be used to measure the occurrence of disease with gradual onset a) True b) False 7) This measure reflects the impact of a disease on population in terms of death a) Incidence density b) Case fatality c) Disease specific mortality d) Attack rate 8) While measuring the frequency of a chronic disease in a community in terms of Incidence per 1000 persons per year, and point prevalence per 1000 persons, what is the expected pattern of incidence and prevalence? a) Low prevalence, high incidence b) High prevalence, low incidence c) Both prevalence and incidence will be similar d) None of the above statements are true 9) In a study among 3400 children aged 5-10 years, 16 children were diagnosed with autistic disorder. Calculate the prevalence of autism per 1000 children a) 4.01 b) 5.53 c) 3.35 d) 4.71 10) Statistic used to estimate the risk of acquiring a disease a) Prevalence b) Incidence c) Mortality rate d) All of the above 11) What is the appropriate measure when a researcher wishes to know the burden of a particular disease in terms of the number of deaths it causes in a specified geographical region and population? a) Incidence density b) Case fatality c) Attack rate d) Disease specific mortality 12) If health policy makers want to evaluate the impact of a prevention program, which is the appropriate measure to be considered? Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 4 a) Period prevalence b) Incidence c) Point prevalence d) Case fatality 13) Select the correct statement among the following a) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it has a high cure rate b) Prevalence of a disease will decrease when it has a low case fatality ratio c) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it has a low cure rate d) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it is acute in nature 14) What is the appropriate epidemiologic measure to determine the severity of an acute disease? a) Incidence rate b) Prevalence c) Mortality rate d) Case fatality ratio 15) Cumulative incidence is otherwise known as a) Attack rate b) Case fatality rate c) Mortality rate d) Morbidity rate 16) The healthcare professionals working in an intensive care unit were asked whether there has been an increase in the number of new pneumonia cases. Which of the following factor(s) is inappropriate in the calculation of cumulative incidence? a) Number of new cases of pneumonia during a specific period of time b) Total number of people at risk of developing the disease in that population during the same period of time c) Pre-existing cases of pneumonia d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ 17) When measuring the frequency for an acute infectious disease in a community in terms of incidence per 1000 persons per year and point prevalence per 1000 persons, how will the pattern of incidence and prevalence be? a) High prevalence b) Low incidence c) Both prevalence and incidence will be similar d) Low prevalence and high incidence 18) Among 25000 population in a city, 105 residents were identified with Hepatitis B infection. Calculate the prevalence of Hepatitis B per 1000 population. a) 5.2 b) 4.2 c) 3.2 d) 2.2 19) Which of the following condition tends to increase the prevalence of a particular disease? a) High cure rate b) Low case fatality ratio c) Short duration d) Emigration of patients 20) Which of the following is true about incidence density? a) Numerator has number of new cases b) Also called cumulative incidence c) Denominator is number of persons at risk d) Numerator has person-years at risk 21) In a rural block with 1,00,000 population, 250 residents were identified with cardiovascular disease. Calculate the prevalence of cardiovascular disease per 1000 population. a) 0.2 b) 0.5 c) 2.5 d) 25 22) What is the appropriate epidemiologic measure to determine the burden of a disease in terms of number of cases present Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 4 in a specified geographical area at a specific point in time? a) Cumulative Incidence b) Point Prevalence c) Incidence rate d) Case fatality ratio 23) In a study, 300 children were followed up for a period of one year to determine the burden of acute respiratory infections (ARI). Calculate the incidence density if the total number of ARI episodes recorded was 1500. a) 5 episodes per child year b) 0.2 episodes per child year c) 3 episodes per child year d) 0.5 episodes per child year 24) A total of 100 people with hypertension were followed up for 3 years to observe for the development of myocardial infarction in a cohort study. At the end of first year, 10 people developed myocardial infarction, at the end of second year, 10 people left the study and at the end of third year, another 10 people developed myocardial infarction. Calculate the total person-years of observation in this study? a) 250 b) 260 c) 270 d) 280 25) During a one-year follow-up, a psychiatrist determined the burden of suicidal ideation among 100 patients with drug addiction. Seven patients had previous history of suicidal ideation and 20 patients developed it for the first time. What is the incidence of suicidal ideation in the study population? a) 7% per year b) 20% per year c) 21.5% per year d) 27 per year 26) In a food poisoning outbreak, 75 people were affected. Among them, 50 were hospitalized, and two died. Calculate the case-fatality ratio. a) 1.2% b) 2.7% c) 4% d) 8% 27) Which of the following is NOT required for calculating prevalence of a disease? a) Pre-existing cases of the disease b) New cases of the disease c) Total number of people at risk d) Total person-time of observation 28) Which of the following condition tends to reduce the prevalence of a particular disease? a) High cure rate b) Low case fatality ratio c) Improved case detection rate d) Immigration of diseased people 29) In which of the following conditions, prevalence is an appropriate measure of disease frequency? a) Common cold episodes in elderly b) Number of exacerbations in asthma patients c) Proportion of foot ulcers in Diabetes Mellitus d) Number of diarrhoea episodes in children 30) Which of the following is INCORRECT about case fatality? a) It reflects the severity of a disease b) High case fatality indicates poor prognosis c) It relates the number of deaths to the number of cases of a disease d) It is a true rate ______________ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 5 1. Study design(s) useful for describing uncommon clinical manifestations a) Case reports b) Case series c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) Ecological study 2. Cross-sectional studies are used to a) Estimate prevalence b) Generate hypotheses c) Describe trends d) All of the above 3. In a cross-sectional study, we can observe one or more outcomes a) True b) False 4. Which one of the following is useful to measure the burden or magnitude of a disease or risk factor? a) Case-control study b) Cross-sectional study c) Case report d) Case series 5. Which of the following is wrong about descriptive study designs? a) Describe the study outcome for 1 group b) Compare the study outcomes for 2 group c) Calculate the incidence for surveillance data d) Calculate prevalence for crosssectional study 6. Descriptive epidemiology study designs can answer all of the following questions EXCEPT: a) Who? b) When? c) Where? d) Why? 7. Which one of the following study designs does not employ comparison groups to answer the primary study objectives? a) Cross-sectional study b) Cohort study c) Ecological study d) Clinical trials 8. Unit of observation in the cross-sectional study is a) Individual b) Group c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) None of the above 9. Case reports can include presentation of a) Unique features/symptoms of a disease b) Rare manifestation of common disease c) New or unfamiliar diseases d) All of the above 10. Advantage of the ecological study is a) Relate rate of disease and exposure b) Useful to test hypothesis c) Useful to study rare diseases d) All of the above 11. A researcher can assess the following by conducting a descriptive study EXCEPT a) Population in which the disease was prevalent b) Period in which the disease occurred c) Risk factors of the disease d) Place distribution of the disease 12. The following study design provides group exposure and group response/outcome without knowing the individual exposure and response for a specific health problem a) Ecological study b) Cross sectional survey c) Case report d) Case series Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 5 13. Which of the following study design will be helpful if the department of health wants to know the burden of a particular disease? a) Ecological study b) Cross sectional survey c) Case series d) Case report 14. A clinician comes across an unusual presentation of a particular neurological disorder. If the clinician describes this single case in detail and publishes the same in a journal, then it will be called a) Analytical study b) Case report c) Cross sectional survey d) Ecological study 15. The advantage of an ecological study is that a) It is analytical in nature b) It will cover individual level information on risk factors and disease c) It will be useful to test hypotheses d) It will be useful to generate hypotheses 16. In a tertiary care hospital, a surgeon collected information on quality of life and outcome among a small group of (about 15) post-operative patients after using a novel surgical device. But this is not sufficient to establish the efficacy of the surgical device because a) There is no comparison group b) There is no information of risk factors c) We do not have details of the outcome d) We do not have individual level data 17. Population census is a a) Cross sectional survey b) Ecological study c) Analytical study d) None of the above 18. One of the major limitations of a crosssectional study is that a) It is time consuming b) It has lower validity c) It does not establish disease etiology d) It requires a large sample size 19. Characteristic of a cross sectional study is that a) We can calculate the incidence of a disease b) We can test a hypotheses c) It is difficult to conduct d) Exposure and outcome are assessed at the same time 20. If a researcher wishes to estimate the incidence of Myocardial infarction cases among a group of women using oral contraceptive pills followed up for 10year, the researcher has to carry out a) Case series b) Cohort study c) Cross sectional study d) Ecological study 21. Case series are useful a) To estimate burden of a disease b) To determine risk factors of a disease c) To determine efficacy of a new drug d) To describe uncommon clinical manifestation 22. All the following are true about crosssectional survey, EXCEPT a) Individual is the unit of observation b) Involves only incident cases c) Estimate the burden of a disease d) It can be used to generate hypothesis 23. A detailed presentation of a single case which is rare and unfamiliar, is called a) Case report b) Case series Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 5 c) Ecological study d) Cross-sectional study 24. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ecological study? a) It relates the rate of disease and frequency of exposure b) It is an example of observational study c) It uses individual level data d) It helps in generating hypothesis 25. Which of the following is NOT applicable in a case study? a) Clinical features b) Laboratory parameters c) Socio-demographic background d) Incidence 26. To determine the association between air pollution and male infertility, data on air quality index and prevalence of male infertility was collected for 183 countries for the year 2019. What best describes the study? a) Case report b) Case series c) Ecological study d) Cross-sectional study 27. In a medical journal, 18 cases of Creutzfeldt Jakob disease were reported from a tertiary care hospital in Sikkim. The authors of the paper gave a description of the socio-demographic, clinical, and laboratory features of the 18 patients. What best describes this study design? a) Case study b) Case series c) Case control study d) Ecological study 28. Which of the following is FALSE about cross-sectional studies? a) Can be used to generate hypothesis b) Can be used to establish temporality of association c) Can be used to estimate disease burden d) Can be used to identify factors associated with outcome 29. State whether true or false. Descriptive cross-sectional study does not have a comparison group. a) True b) False 30. Which of the following studies can be used to identify the factors associated with an outcome? a) Descriptive cross-sectional study b) Analytical cross-sectional study c) Case study d) Case series __________________ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 6 1. Exposure is not assigned by the investigator in the following study design a) Cohort b) Case-control c) Cross-sectional d) All of the above 2. Which of the following statement(s) is true about the cohort study? a) It is not suitable for disease with a long latency period b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) None of the above 3. Which of the following study design is better suited to demonstrate a temporal association between exposure and disease? a) Cross-sectional study b) Case-control study c) Cohort study d) Ecological study 4. Relative risk of more than 1 indicates a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than exposed b) Incidence in exposed and unexposed are same c) Incidence in exposed is higher than unexposed d) Relative risk is significant 5. If the odds of exposure among cases is lower than the odds of exposure among the controls, the odds ratio will be a) More than 1 b) Less than 1 c) It depends on other factors d) None of the above 6. All babies born in a particular year will form a birth cohort a) True b) False 7. Cohort study is suitable for rare diseases a) True b) False 8. Which of the following is NOT true regarding case-control study? i. Appropriate for study of rare outcome ii. More time consuming than cohort study iii. Multiple exposures can be examined iv. Relatively expensive compared to cohort study a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Both (ii) and (iii) c) Both (ii) and (iv) d) Both (iii) and (iv) 9. What is an appropriate measure of statistical association in a cohort study? a) Prevalence ratio b) Risk ratio c) Odds ratio d) Pearson's correlation coefficient 10. The entire population of a given community is screened and all those judged as being free of Colon cancer are questioned extensively about their diet. These people are then followed-up for several years to see whether their eating habits will predict their risk of developing Colon cancer - This is an example of a) Case-control study b) Clinical trial c) Cross-sectional study d) Cohort study 11. Exposure is assigned by the investigator in which of the following epidemiological study? a) Case-control b) Cross-sectional c) Experimental d) Cohort Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 6 12. When a group of people with defined characteristics are followed up to determine incidence is known as a) Case series b) Cohort c) Case control d) Experimental 13. Relative risk is a a) Rate b) Ratio c) Proportion d) None of the above 14. Relative risk of one in a cohort study indicates a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than exposed b) Incidence in exposed is higher than unexposed c) Relative risk is significant d) Incidence in the exposed and unexposed groups are same 15. Women aged above 35 years were screened for the HPV (Human papilloma virus) infection and those who had HPV infection were then followed for several years to predict the risk of developing cervical cancer. This study is known as a) Prospective cohort b) Retrospective cohort c) Case control d) Cross sectional 16. Which of the following is appropriate regarding a cohort study? i. Multiple exposures can be examined ii. Appropriate for studying rare exposures iii. Expensive and time consuming iv. Appropriate for studying rare diseases a) Both (i) and (ii) b) Both (iii) and (iv) c) Both (ii) and (iv) d) Both (ii) and (iii) 17. Which of the following statement regarding the cohort study is FALSE? a) Suitable to study a disease with long latency period b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias c) Relative risk can be calculated d) Temporal association with the risk factor can be established 18. Odds ratio of more than one indicates a) Odds of exposure among cases is lower than the odds of exposure among the controls b) Odds of exposure among cases is equal to the odds of exposure among the controls c) Odds of exposure among cases is higher than the odds of exposure among the controls d) Exposure is negatively associated with the disease 19. If there is a comparison group in an epidemiological study design, it is called a) Descriptive b) Analytical c) Ecological d) None of the above 20. Which of the following statements about case control/cohort studies is correct? a) Case control study always establishes temporal association b) Cohort study establishes temporal association c) Cohort has lower level of evidence than case-control d) Do case control for rare exposures and cohort for rare diseases 21. To determine the associated factors of anti-hypertensive drug compliance, an Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 6 investigator selected 384 participants with hypertension who were undergoing treatment in a tertiary care hospital. The investigator collected the details on the socio-economic background of the participants and took history regarding the consumption of medicines in the past two weeks. Then the drug compliant group and the non-compliant group were compared to identify factors associated with drug compliance. What is the type of the study design? a) Case control study b) Prospective cohort study c) Case study d) Analytical cross-sectional study 22. A gynaecology resident intends to determine the association between intrauterine device (IUD) use and risk of extrauterine pregnancy. The investigator recruited 100 cases of extrauterine pregnancy and 200 participants who had intrauterine pregnancy as controls from the obstetrics ward of a tertiary care hospital over a period of 2 years. Both cases and controls were interviewed about the history of IUD use. Among the cases, 6 participants had history of IUD use and among controls, 4 had history of IUD use. Calculate the odds ratio of extrauterine pregnancies among women with history of IUD use? a) 0.32 b) 1.39 c) 3.12 d) 0.72 23. An investigator conducted a case control study with psoriasis patients as cases and other skin disease patients as controls. Those having hypertension were considered as exposed and nonhypertensives as non-exposed. The study found an odds ratio of 1.45. Which of the following is correct? a) Psoriasis is positively associated with hypertension b) Odds of hypertension among psoriasis patients is lower than the odds of hypertension among patients without psoriasis c) Odds of psoriasis among hypertensive patients is lower than the odds of psoriasis among non-hypertensives d) Hypertension is a causative factor of psoriasis 24. A prospective cohort study was conducted to determine the association between coffee consumption and risk of pancreatitis among 10000 healthy participants. Among the participants 3500 participants consumed coffee, whereas 6500 participants did not. After a follow up of 10 years 85 participants in the coffee consumption group developed pancreatitis, whereas among the noncoffee consumption group 130 in developed pancreatitis. Calculate the relative risk of pancreatitis due to coffee consumption. a) 0.04 b) 0.85 c) 1.21 d) 1.50 25. All the following are elements of a cohort study, EXCEPT a) It involves calculation of incidence rate b) It proceeds from exposure to outcome c) It involves randomization of participants Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 6 d) It involves follow-up of the participants 26. All the following are limitations of a case control study, EXCEPT a) It can introduce recall bias b) Incidence of disease cannot be determined c) Selection of appropriate control group may be difficult d) It can introduce attrition bias 27. Using medical records from a tertiary care cancer hospital, a researcher collected data on occupational exposure and lung carcinoma on patients admitted between 2000 and 2010. He classified the patients who had history of working in coal mines as exposed and others as unexposed. He then compared the frequency of lung carcinoma among the exposed and the unexposed. What best describes the study design? a) Case control study b) Retrospective cohort study c) Cross-sectional study d) Analytical cross-sectional study 28. A paediatrician recruited 120 children with Crohn’s disease and their matched sibling controls. The researcher collected history of exclusive breastfeeding (EBF) from the mothers. Presence/ absence of EBF was compared between the diseased and the non-diseased children. Identify the study design in this research? a) Case series b) Cross-sectional study c) Case control study d) Cohort study 29. Which of the following is INCORRECT about selection of cases in case control study? a) Cases are study participants who had the disease in the source population b) Selection of cases should be based on the exposure status c) Inclusion of prevalent cases can save time and money d) Inclusion of prevalent cases may introduce survivor bias 30. A multicentric study was conducted to determine the association between diabetes and cataract. The investigators recruited 1000 diabetics and 2500 nondiabetics. The participants were examined to exclude presence of cataract at the time of recruitment. They were followed once yearly for 10 years to document the development of cataract. The study found that the incidence of cataract among diabetics was more when compared with the non-diabetics. Identify the study design in this study? a) Cross-sectional study b) Case control study c) Prospective cohort study d) Experimental study ---------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 4 Assignment 7 1. One of the cornerstones of the randomized controlled trials is a) Recruitment b) Randomization c) Blinding d) Placebo 2. Randomized clinical trials can be best described as a) Experimental studies b) Analytic studies c) Descriptive studies d) Observational studies 3. Which of the following is/are true in a clinical trial? a) Sample size determination b) Approval from regulatory authority c) Agreement between the investigators and sponsors d) All of the above 4. A pharmacologically inactive agent that investigators administer to participants in the control group of a trial a) Comparator drug b) Placebo c) Conjugate d) Drug under investigation 5. Key methodological components of a Randomized Controlled Trials are a) Use of a control to which the experimental intervention is compared b) Random assignment of participants to intervention c) Taking informed consent from all study participants d) All of the above 6. Double-blinding in a clinical trial involves a) Participants before and after study b) Participants and investigators c) Investigators and analysts d) Participants and analysis 7. The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical trial is to a) Achieve comparability of all arms of a clinical trial b) Avoid observer and participant bias c) Avoid observer bias and sampling variation d) Avoid subject bias and sampling variation 8. What is the purpose of randomization in a clinical trial? a) Get better power for data analysis b) Generalizing the study findings to the population which is not studied c) Achieve balance in baseline characteristics d) Guarantee that the statistical tests have valid significance levels 9. Which phase of a clinical trial is referred to as post-marketing surveillance? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 10. Long-term adverse effects and efficacy of a new drug can be tested in which of the following phases of a clinical trial? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 11. Which of the following is incorrect in case of a clinical trial? a) All clinical trials must be blinded b) Randomization is a critically important step in a clinical trial c) All clinical trials must be approved by Institutional Ethics Committee before initiation d) It is mandatory to register clinical trials with Clinical Trials Registry of India Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 7 12. Which of the following procedures ensure safety of the clinical trial participants? a. Adverse events reporting b. Serious adverse events reporting c. Periodic follow-up d. Review by Data Safety Monitoring Board 1) 'a', 'b', 'c', and 'd' 2) 'a', 'b' and 'd' 13. All the following correctly describe a clinical trial, except a) It has all advantages of a cohort study b) It is possible to analyze the confounders c) Loss to follow up of study participants does not affect the study outcome d) Appropriate implemented informed consent procedure as well as long-term care and support to trial participants help to overcome several ethical concerns 14. Which of the following can be considered as an advantage of a double blinding in a randomized controlled trial? a) Equally distributes known and unknown confounders in experiment and control arm b) Ensures that participants adhere to the protocol c) Gives benefits of an intervention to some of the study participants d) Prevent bias that arises from researchers being able to influence the data due to knowledge of allocated groups 15. Biased outcome ascertainment results from: a) Participants reporting symptoms or outcomes differently b) Investigators eliciting symptoms or outcomes following a standardized technique c) None of the above d) Both "a" and "b" 16. In a clinical trial, what is the main purpose of randomization? a) To get more power for data analysis b) To reduce investigator bias c) To get groups with comparable baseline characteristics d) To ensure optimum number of participants in each trial arm 17. Which of the following can eliminate the problem of Co-intervention? a) Random sampling b) Allocation concealment c) Informed consent d) Blinding 18. Which of the following is not true in case of a clinical trial? a) Clinical trials are planned experiments designed to assess the efficacy of an intervention b) Clinical trials usually involve comparing the outcomes in two or more groups of individuals c) Clinical trials are usually free from selection bias d) Clinical trials are usually prospective in nature 19. Which of the following trials assesses effectiveness of a new vaccine? a) Phase 1 trial done in healthy volunteers b) Phase 2 trial done in a susceptible population c) Phase 3 trial done in healthy volunteers d) Phase 3 trial done in a susceptible population 20. Which of the following is not true about a randomized control trial? a) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups must be similar b) Investigator bias can be minimized by double blinding Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 7 c) The sample size depends on the hypothesis being tested d) Drop outs should be excluded from the analysis 21. State whether true or false. In a randomized controlled trial, the investigator is unaware of the sequence of allocation of the participants to one of the study arms before and until the assignment is complete. This process is known as allocation concealment. a) True b) False 22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of randomized controlled trials? a) Simple random sampling b) Randomization c) Allocation concealment d) Blinding 23. A research group from a medical college in Lucknow conducted a study to assess the efficacy of a new herbal medicine for the prevention of pneumonia in elderly. What type of randomized controlled trial is this study? a) Screening RCT b) Diagnostic RCT c) Therapeutic RCT d) Prophylactic RCT 24. In which type of population is a phase-I vaccine trial conducted? a) Healthy volunteers b) High risk group c) Diseased population d) Laboratory animals 25. State whether true or false. Randomization is a process, where the participants have an equal chance of being assigned to any one of the study groups. a) True b) False 26. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of randomized controlled trials? a) Provides high quality evidence b) Controls for selection and confounding bias c) Establishes temporality of association d) Entails minimal ethical issues 27. Post-marketing surveillance is done in which of the clinical trial phases? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 28. State whether true or false. Randomized controlled trials are retrospective in nature. a) True b) False 29. In a clinical trial conducted by the Orthopaedic department of a medical college in Bhubaneshwar, the investigators compared the wound healing time between conventional suturing technique and stapling technique for open fractures. The investigators, patients and data analysts were aware about the treatment assignment. What best describes this study design? a) Open-label RCT b) Single blind RCT c) Double blind RCT d) Triple blind RCT 30. Blinding in a randomized controlled trial addresses which of the following biases? a) Ascertainment bias b) Recall bias c) Volunteer bias d) Attrition bias --------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 8 1. Obtaining an estimate that is generalizable to relevant study population in a research study is a) External validity b) Internal validity c) Bias d) Confounding 2. Any process that tends to produce results that depart systematically from true values in a research study a) Chance b) Bias c) Random error d) Effect Modification 3. Systematic selection of more number of expose participants with the higher risk of outcome in a cohort study will result in a) Selection bias b) Information bias c) Confounding d) Random error 4. The effect of the exposure of interest on the outcome is distorted because of the effect of extraneous factors that are related to both the exposure and outcome. This phenomenon is called a) Correlation effect b) Confounding c) Recall bias d) Measurement error 5. Biases can occur during which stage of research study? a) Study design b) Study implementation c) Data analysis d) At any of the above stages 6. All are true regarding measures to reduce information bias, EXCEPT a) Precise operational definitions of all variables b) Detailed measurement protocols c) Adequate sample size d) Training, Certification and re-certification of data collectors 7. Variability in estimation due to unknown/uncontrollable factors a) Chance b) Bias c) Confounding d) Effect modification 8. All are true regarding confounding in an epidemiological study, EXCEPT a) May simulate an association that does not exist b) May increase or decrease the strength of association c) May not reveal an association that does exist d) Always change the direction of effect 9. The method which can used to alleviate confounding during data analysis in an epidemiological study a) Multivariate analysis b) Restriction c) Matching d) Randomization 10. To reduce selection bias in case-control studies, all of the following are true EXCEPT a) Use population based design b) Apply different eligibility criteria for selecting cases and controls c) Both cases and controls undergo the same diagnostic procedures d) Avoid hospital based design 11. Obtaining an accurate estimate of disease frequency and effect of exposure on health outcomes in study population pertains to a) External Validity b) Internal Validity c) Bias d) Confounding Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 8 12. Blinding in an epidemiological study is a way to deal with a) Chance b) Selection Bias c) Information Bias d) Sampling Error 13. Better recall of exposure only among the cases in a case control study can result in a) Information bias b) Confounding c) Investigator bias d) Selection bias 14. The ability of a tool to correctly measure what it is supposed to measure is called as a) Precision b) Validity c) Reliability d) Consistency 15. Bias may distort the association between exposure and outcome among the study participants a) True b) False 16. A case control study was conducted to know the effect of smoking on lung cancer among hospitalized patients. The controls were recruited from patients admitted to the respiratory ward for other conditions. What type of bias will be introduced by virtue of recruiting controls from the hospital who are potentially different from the general population? a) Selection bias b) Information bias c) Confounding d) Random error 17. A researcher studied the effect of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction. The effect of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction was distorted because of the presence of a third factor, ie. smoking. This phenomenon is called as a) Correlation effect b) Confounding c) Recall bias d) Measurement error 18. Which of the following method is used to address for known confounders at the designing stage of a study a) Matching b) Regression c) Stratification d) Adjusted analysis 19. Systematic distortion of the truth by study subjects is called as a) Plagiarism b) Chance c) Confounding d) Prevarication 20. Crude association in the presence of a confounder is the actual causal association a) True b) False 21. Which of the following is the best method of ensuring that the experimental and control arms in an experimental study are similar with regard to known and unknown confounders at the planning stage? a) Matching b) Randomization c) Stratification d) Multivariate analysis 22. When the study finding is generalizable to the target population, then it is a) Internally valid b) Reliable c) Accurate d) Externally valid 23. Which of the following can introduce selection bias in a case control study? Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 8 a) Differential recall about exposure by the cases b) Collecting data differently from the exposed and unexposed c) Inclusion of controls not representative of the target population d) Systematic distortion of the truth by the study participants 24. Which of the following is TRUE about information bias in a cohort study? a) It is caused by higher attrition rate among the exposed group b) It can be caused by selecting controls from the community c) It can be avoided by uniform outcome ascertainment d) It can be minimised by reducing loss to follow-up 25. Which of the following is NOT a systematic error in an epidemiological study? a) Random error b) Confounding c) Selection bias d) Information bias 26. Which of the following measure is related to ensuring the internal validity of a study? a) Using a validated study questionnaire to assess outcomes b) Including an adequate number of study participants c) Complying strictly with the study protocol d) All the above 27. Which of the following is FALSE about confounding in epidemiological studies? a) Confounding may simulate an association when it does not exist b) Confounding does not increase or decrease the strength of the association c) Confounding may hide an association that exists d) Confounding may change the direction of an exposure-outcome association 28. Systematic collection of data by an investigator supporting an expected conclusion in an epidemiological study may result in a) Confounding b) Information bias c) Selection bias d) Random error 29. Which of the following is NOT a method of dealing with confounding during the design stage? a) Restriction b) Stratification c) Matching d) Randomization 30. A cohort study was conducted to examine the association between obesity and cardiovascular disease. During analysis, gender was suspected to be a confounder. Which of the following methods will help in examining the confounding effect due to gender? a) Matching b) Restriction c) Randomization d) Multivariate regression ------------------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 9 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Which methods in qualitative research use flexible interview guide? a) In depth Interviews and participant observation b) Focus Group Discussions and In-depth interviews c) Participant Observation and focus group discussions d) Structure interviews and surveys Which of the following study designs can be used as a tool a generate ideas/hypotheses? a) Qualitative study b) Case-control study c) Experimental study d) Cohort study The qualitative data analysis method in which investigators code text into categories and build theoretical models a) Content analysis b) Grounded theory c) Schema analysis d) Hermeneutics Open-ended, one-to-one interviews to discover interviewee's own framework of meanings a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured interviews Audio recordings during Focus Group Discussions a) Can be done without any prior informed written consent b) Cannot be done c) Should always be done d) Can be done with prior informed consent All of the following are situations in which qualitative research methods can be used, EXCEPT a) Familiar and sufficiently researched matter b) To seek the depth of understanding c) Exploration of behaviors d) View the social phenomenon holistically 7. The main methods used in qualitative research method include all EXCEPT a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured questionnaire based interviews 8. The observer becomes a part of the group or event in this method of qualitative study a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured interviews 9. All the statements regarding Participant Observation is true EXCEPT a) Observer becomes a part of the event/group b) Systematic collection of data is easy c) Analytic methods for observation are not well described d) Data is very detailed 10. The qualitative data analysis method which uses theoretical framework as the basis for analysis a) Content analysis b) Grounded theory c) Schema Analysis d) Hermeneutics 11. Which of the following are characteristics of qualitative research methods? a) Objective, measurable, reliable and repeatable b) Subjective, measurable, credible and repeatable c) Subjective, credible, inductive and interpretation of responses d) Objective, credible, inductive and interpretation of responses Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 9 12. The research method which is best suited for collection of information regarding highly sensitive matters such as alcohol use a) Focus Group Discussions b) Participant Observation c) In-Depth Interview d) Group discussions 13. Which of the following is not the utility of qualitative research a) To provide insight to why people behave in a certain way b) To estimate the prevalence of disease c) To help understand the results of a quantitative study d) For developing a questionnaire 14. Which of the following statement is true regarding Participant Observation a) Observer becomes a part of the event/group b) Systematic collection of data is easy c) Analytic methods for observation are well described d) Data is brief as compared to in-depth interviews 15. Open ended group interviews that promotes discussion among participants is called as a) In depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant Observation d) Structured interviews 16. A researcher decided to conduct a study to explore the child feeding practices among mothers of under five children in a community. Which of the following qualitative techniques can the researcher employ to gather wide range of information on the topic in a short span of time? a) Structured interview b) In depth Interview c) Participant Observation d) Focus Group Discussion 17. In qualitative research, researchers interpret the social reality from the participants’ point of view. a) True b) False 18. Which of the following statements is “Incorrect” about in-depth interviews? a) Findings are always generalizable b) The transcripts are time consuming to analyze c) Helps understand sensitive issues d) Useful when participants are knowledgeable on a particular topic 19. Which of the following statement is “False” about focus group discussion. a) Focus group discussions help understand local terminologies b) Group interaction is integral for an effective discussion c) Heterogeneity of the group is a prerequisite d) Audio and video recordings are done with prior consent 20. Triangulation is the use of multiple methods, multiple theories and or multiple sources for a comprehensive understanding of the topic in question a) True b) False 21. Which of the following characteristics is NOT related to qualitative research data? a) Subjective validity b) Data is in text form c) Hypothesis testing is a goal d) It involves interpretation of responses 22. Which of the following CANNOT be done using qualitative research? a) Viewing a social phenomenon holistically b) Estimating the burden of a disease c) Seeking in-depth understanding of a phenomenon Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 9 d) Unfamiliar subject matter 23. A researcher wants to estimate the prevalence of exclusive breast feeding in a remote tribal population. She also wants to understand the myths and taboos associated with breast feeding. Which of the following approaches can be employed in this scenario? a) Qualitative study b) Clinical trial c) Mixed-methods study d) Cross-sectional study 24. Which of the following is NOT a data collection method used in qualitative research? a) Interviews b) Sociogram c) Participant observation d) Focus group discussion 25. Which of the following is NOT a feature of ‘In-depth interviews’? a) It involves two or more participants at a time b) It follows an interview guide c) It is suitable for a highly sensitive topic d) It obtains rich contextualized information 26. Which of the following is an advantage of conducting ‘in-depth interviews’? a) It expresses the ‘Emic’ perspective b) It is generalizable c) It is a quick process d) It uses a systematic sampling approach 27. State whether true or false. In a focus group discussion, it is easy to obtain personal behaviors on a sensitive issue a) True b) False 28. Which of the following is TRUE regarding ‘participant observation’ method? a) It is easy to analyze the data b) The researcher himself becomes a part of the study group c) Data obtained is very concise d) The researcher interviews each participant in detail 29. State whether true or false. Data obtained from Focus Group Discussion may be sensitive to biased analysis. a) True b) False 30. The analytical approach where the researcher proceeds to develop a theory based on learnings obtained from the data is called a) Grounded theory analysis b) Content analysis c) Schema analysis d) Factor analysis ------------------ Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 10 1. In a study on hypertension, patients are categorized based on their systolic blood pressure as normal, pre-hypertension, stage 1 hypertension and stage 2 hypertension. What type of variable is this? a) Qualitative b) Descriptive c) Nominal d) Ordinal 2. Most commonly used measure of central tendency is a) Mode b) Median c) Mean d) Range 3. First quartile (Q1) is equivalent to __________ percentile a) 25th b) 50th c) 75th d) 1st 4. Find the median in the following sample of observations: 12, 26, 10, 29, 48 a) 29 b) 48 c) 26 d) 25 5. The following measure is not influenced by extreme values in a data set a) Arithmetic Mean b) Inter-quartile range c) Range d) 'b' and 'c' 6. Which of the following statistic does not belong with the others? a) Range b) Variance c) Mode d) Standard deviation 7. 'Number of children per household' is an example of a continuous variable a) True b) False 8. In a study, researchers are interested in measuring the cholesterol levels of participants. Cholesterol level is a ________ variable a) Ordinal b) Nominal c) Continuous d) Discrete 9. In the following set of data, what is the mean? 4,1,9,7,3,8,2,6 a) 5 b) 4.5 c) 9 d) 8 10. Difference between the minimum value and the maximum value of the observations a) Variance b) Inter-quartile range c) Range d) Standard Deviation 11. All the following are measures of dispersion except a) Mean b) Variance c) Standard deviation d) Range 12. Which percentile is equivalent to the median? a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 100 13. All the following are true for standard deviation (SD) EXCEPT a) It is the square root of the average of the squared deviations of the observations from the arithmetic mean b) It is the most important measure of dispersion Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 10 c) It is expressed in the same units of measurement as the observation d) The square of the standard deviation is called mean deviation 14. A researcher measures fasting blood level of glucose of 100 participants. The mean blood sugar level was measured as 110 mg/dl. The standard deviation was 11 mg/dl. Calculate the coefficient of variance. a) 20% b) 14% c) 10% d) 25% 15. A researcher measures the height of 100 school going children for his study. What type of variable is ‘height’? a) Nominal b) Ordinal c) Continuous d) Discrete 16. A chest physician observed the distribution of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 100 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease (COPD) patients and calculated a median value of 2.0 litres. The value of first and third quartile of the distribution was 1.5 litres and 3.0 litres respectively. Based on this data how many patients in the sample are expected to have a FEV between 1.5 and 3.0 litres? a) 100 b) 50 c) 25 d) 75 17. The average of the absolute deviations of the observations from the arithmetic mean is known as a) Variance b) Inter-quartile range c) Mean deviation d) Standard deviation 18. In a study, a researcher was interested in measuring the hemoglobin levels of 10 participants. The values are 10.0, 8.5, 12.0, 14.0, 11.5, 13.5, 9.0, 12.0, 11.3, 7.5. What is the mode of this distribution? a) 7.5 b) 12.0 c) 10.9 d) 14.0 19. All the following are examples of a nominal variable EXCEPT a) Gender b) Age c) Place of residence d) Colour of eyes 20. Which of the following is true about interquartile range? a) It describes the middle value of the distribution b) It divides the distribution into two halves c) It covers the middle 50% of observations d) It is affected by the extreme values in the distribution 21. When the data set contains too many extreme values, the most representative average value is a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Variance 22. The age of ten pregnant women who visited an ANC clinic is given. What is the mean age of this group? (26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, 25 and 33 years). a) 45 b) 28 c) 25 d) 32 23. Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion when comparing variables which are measured in different units? Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 10 a) Inter-quartile range b) Coefficient of variation c) Range d) Standard deviation 24. The following scores were obtained by ten medical students in a quiz: (5, 3, 6, 8, 7, 8, 3, 11, 6, 3) What is the median score of this group? a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 11 25. ‘Height of the students in a particular class measured in centimeter’ is an example of a continuous variable a) True b) False 26. What is the appropriate measure of dispersion to report when median is reported as the measure of central tendency for a given set of data? a) Standard deviation b) Inter-quartile range c) Variance d) Coefficient of variance 27. In the NCD clinic of a primary health Centre, fasting blood sugar (in g/dL) of 11 patients was measured. The following values were obtained - (85, 93, 104, 108, 105, 120, 129, 202, 160, 400, 410). What is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for this data? a) Mean = 120 b) Median = 120 c) Mean = 174.1 d) Median = 174.1 28. Which of the following about ‘Range’ is TRUE? a) It indicates the way in which values cluster about a particular point b) It gives the number of observations bearing the same value c) It is the difference between the minimum and maximum value d) It shows the degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value. 29. In a survey, socio-economic status (SES) was collected in the following manner – ‘Lower, Lower Middle, Upper Middle and Upper’. What type of variable is SES? a) Ordinal b) Nominal c) Continuous d) Discrete 30. Body weights of 11 children who attended a pediatric OPD was measured. For this group, the first quartile, median, mean and third quartile were 8.5, 12, 11.9 and 16, respectively. Calculate the Interquartile Range. a) 3.5 b) 7.5 c) 0.1 d) 24.5 ----------------------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 11 1. The process by which some members of a population are selected as representative of the entire population is known as a) Census b) Sampling c) Survey d) Randomization 2. Sampling based upon equal chance of selection is called a) Stratified random sampling b) Simple random sampling c) Systematic sampling d) Subjective sampling 3. A researcher wishing to draw a sample from sequentially numbered houses uses a random starting point and then selects every 6th houses, s/he has thus drawn a ________ sample a) Sequential b) Systematic c) Simple random d) Stratified 4. The following statement is correct regarding sampling error a) Sampling error is difficult to measure in simple random sampling b) Sampling error is easy to measure in stratified sampling c) The magnitude of error can be measured in non-probability samples d) The magnitude of error can be measured in probability samples 5. The only sampling method allows to draw valid conclusions about the population is a) Non-probability sampling b) Convenience sampling c) Probability sampling d) Subjective sampling 6. All the following are true regarding cluster sampling EXCEPT a) It needs a complete list of units b) The sampling unit is group of subjects c) Sampling error is difficult to measure d) Resources required are less 7. Methods used in probability samples are a) Stratified sampling b) Multi-stage sampling c) Cluster sampling d) All of the above 8. All the following statements are true regarding simple random sampling EXCEPT a) Sampling error is easily measurable b) It needs a complete list of all units c) It ensures equal chance of selection for each unit d) It always achieves best representativeness 9. People who volunteer or who can be easily recruited are used in a sampling method called a) Cluster sampling b) Multi-stage sampling c) Convenience sampling d) Systematic sampling 10. Based on the number of cigarettes per day, a researcher divides the population into three risk groups for lung cancer (low, moderate, high risk). If the researcher then draws a random sample from each of these risk groups independently, s/he has created a _________ sample a) Systematic b) Simple random c) Stratified d) Group data 11. All the following are non-probability sampling methods EXCEPT a) Convenience sampling b) Snowball sampling c) Quota sampling d) Systematic sampling Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 11 12. In a study to measure the prevalence of fluorosis in a district, towns are sampled first. This is followed by a sample of wards within the selected towns, and finally a sample of households within the selected wards. What is the type of the sampling used here? a) Multistage sampling b) Systematic random sampling c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling 13. The magnitude of sampling error can be measured in probability sampling. a) True b) False 14. All the following statements are true regarding stratified sampling EXCEPT a) It classifies population into homogeneous subgroups b) The probability of a participant being selected is unknown c) The sampling error is difficult to measure d) It allows inclusion of representative participants from all subgroups 15. Which of the following is true about nonprobability sampling? a) It removes the possibility of bias in selection of participants b) Sampling error can be measured c) Quota sampling is a type of nonprobability sampling d) Inferences drawn from non-probability sampling can be generalized 16. Random sampling in probability samples reduces the possibility of selection bias a) True b) False 17. Which of the following statement is true regarding systematic random sampling? a) Sampling error cannot be measured b) The chance of selection for each sampling unit is unknown c) The selected sampling units are likely to be more representative than simple random sampling d) It is a type of non-probability sampling 18. A researcher planned a cross-sectional study to assess the level of satisfaction of patients attending a clinic. For this, the researcher selected the first 100 patients who visited the clinic starting from a fixed date. What is the type of the sampling mentioned in this case? a) Snowball sampling b) Purposive sampling c) Simple random sampling d) Stratified random sampling 19. The list of all individuals in the study population from whom study participants in a research are to be selected is known as a) Sampling frame b) Study population c) Sampling unit d) Study sample 20. Which of the following is an advantage of multistage sampling? a) Sampling error is easy to measure b) It does not require a complete list of the total population c) It requires only one sampling list d) It always achieve the best representative sample 21. Which of the following sampling method ensures that valid conclusions can be drawn about different subgroups in a population? a) Simple random sample b) Systematic random sample c) Stratified random sample d) Cluster random sample 22. Which of the following about simple random sampling method is FALSE? a) It needs a complete list of the units in the target population Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 11 b) Purposive sampling is a type of simple random sample c) It draws units from the target population randomly d) It gives equal chance of selection to every unit in the target population 23. Sampling achieves a) Efficient utilization of resources b) Elimination of random error c) Low non-response rate d) Complete enumeration of population 24. In simple random sampling, the probability of selection of each individual is a) Unequal b) Equal c) Unknown d) One 25. Which one of the following biases is prevented by an appropriate sampling technique? a) Volunteer bias b) Interviewer’s bias c) Social desirability bias d) Recall bias 26. In a neighborhood with 5000 houses, a researcher wants to obtain a systematic random sample of 50 houses. What will be the sampling interval in this case? a) 1000 b) 100 c) 0.1 d) 0.01 27. Which one of the following statement about cluster sampling is FALSE? a) Units within a cluster are heterogeneous b) Sampling frame of the entire study area is not required c) Variability between clusters is assumed to be high d) Sampling error is difficult to measure 28. Which one of the following statements about multistage sampling is TRUE? a) It saves resources as compared to simple random sampling b) It requires a complete listing of the entire population c) It’s sampling error can be easily measured d) It is not suitable for sampling from a large population 29. Which one of the following about stratified random sampling is FALSE? a) Units within a strata are homogenous b) Sample is taken from every strata c) Precision improves with low numbers sampled in each stratum d) Stratum specific estimates are weighted to obtain the overall estimate 30. State whether True or False: Commonly used statistical inferences have the assumption of a probability sample. a) True b) False ------------------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 12 1. Statistical power is defined as the probability of a) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true c) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false d) Failing to reject a null hypothesis when it is false 2. Steps in the estimation of sample size included all of the following EXCEPT a) Identify major study variable b) Decide on the desired precision of the estimate c) Adjust for population size d) Adjust for selection bias 3. A type-II error occurs when a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is false b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is false c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is true d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true 4. Exact calculation of design effect for a study parameter can take place you after study completion a) True b) False 5. Population variance can be estimated from a) A pilot study b) Reports of previous studies c) Guessing d) 'a' and 'b' 6. The recommended minimum level of power for an analytical study a) 5% b) 95% c) 80% d) 0.05% 7. In general, sample size formula takes into account the crude association between exposure and outcome as well as the confounders a) True b) False 8. Design effect of 'more than 1' needs to be considered in studies involving a) Cluster sampling b) Simple random sampling c) Stratified random sampling d) Non-probability sampling 9. Which of the following is necessary in sample size determination? a) Desired confidence level b) Desired precision c) Magnitude of the population variance d) All of the above 10. Which one of the following statements is false? a) Design effect is a relative change in the variance due to use of clusters b) As the magnitude of the expected effect increases, the required sample size increases c) The population variance is unknown in general and has to be estimated d) Larger the sample size, smaller the sampling error 11. A type-I error occurs when a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is false b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is false c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is true d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true 12. Which of the following is true about β error? a) It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 12 b) It is the probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false c) It is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true d) It is the probability of making a Type I error 13. All the following are essential statistical considerations for sample size calculation EXCEPT a) Desired precision b) Anticipated proportion of factor of interest c) Sampling method d) Allocated budget 14. For each confounder/variable added in the study empirically 10% increase in the sample size should be made. a) True b) False 15. The design effect should be calculated after completion of the study and it, need not be counted at the design stage. a) True b) False 16. When estimating sample size for a crosssectional study, we need to account for a) Expected proportion of characteristic of interest b) Estimated design effect, in case of cluster sampling c) Population size d) All the above 17. The power of a study a) Does not influence the sample size b) Represented as ‘α’ c) Can be defined as the probability of correctly rejecting null hypothesis when it is false d) Represented as the probability of making a Type I error 18. The following are needed to calculate sample size for analytical studies using simple random sampling method EXCEPT a) Desired value for the probability of α b) Magnitude of the expected effect based on previous studies c) Desired value for the probability of β d) Estimated design effect 19. A researcher wants to estimate the prevalence of surgical site infection following cesarean section at a tertiary care hospital. What would be the minimum number of sample size to estimate the magnitude of surgical site infection following cesarean section if it is estimated that the proportion of surgical site infection will be 10% in the hospital considering 5% absolute precision and 95% confidence level (Z α/2 = 1.96). a) 100 b) 138 c) 148 d) 158 20. Precision is described as a measure of how close an estimate is to the true value of a population parameter. a) True b) False 21. In a cross-sectional study, a group of researchers wanted to estimate the prevalence of cephalosporin-resistant E.coli among adult males with urinary tract infections. From previous literature, the prevalence was found to be 6.5%. If the researchers want to estimate the prevalence with a 20% relative precision and 95% significance level, what is the minimum sample size required? a) 1042 b) 1381 c) 6 d) 600 Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 12 22. Which of the following factors is NOT essential for calculating sample size for a single mean estimation? a) Need for statistical significance b) Assumptions about population standard deviation c) Precision d) Significance level 23. Adjustments to a calculated sample size need NOT be done for which of the following reasons? a) Non-response rate b) Finite population size c) Cluster design d) Hospital-based study 24. State whether true or false. A pilot study can be conducted to get an estimate of the expected prevalence of the disease being studied to calculate the minimum required sample size. a) True b) False 25. A cross-sectional study aims to estimate the prevalence of Hydatid liver disease among patients undergoing Ultrasonography in a tertiary care hospital. Which of the following is NOT required for calculating the minimum required sample size for this objective? a) Significance level b) Assumed prevalence c) Precision d) Population variance 26. What is Type I error? a) The probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false b) The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true c) The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false d) The probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is true 27. Ability of a study to detect correctly the presence of an association is known as a) Precision b) Power c) Confidence d) Significance 28. Standard deviation of a sampling distribution is called systematic error a) True b) False 29. Design effect is considered for which of the following sampling strategy? a) Cluster sampling b) Simple random sampling c) Stratified random sampling d) Non-probability sampling 30. In a hospital based cross-sectional study, it is planned to estimate the mean D-dimer level among COVID-19 patients. From previous literature, the standard deviation was found to be 200 ng/mL. If the researchers want to estimate the mean with a 50 ng/mL precision and 95% significance level, what is the minimum sample size required? a) 62 b) 16 c) 31 d) 248 -------------------------- Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 3 Assignment 13 1. Selection of study participants depends on a) Representativeness b) Acceptable cost c) Adequate size d) All of the above 2. Target population is determined by a) Demographic characteristics b) Temporal characteristics c) Clinical characteristics d) 'a' and 'c' 3. Study sample is a subset of accessible population a) True b) False 4. Representativeness of a study sample refers to a) The extent to which the characteristics of the sample accurately reflect the characteristics of the population b) The size of the sample which is large enough c) Volunteering nature of the subjects from the population d) The extent to which the characteristics of exposed population accurately reflect the characteristics of unexposed sample 5. Non-response in a study can be minimized by a) Repeat contact of the study participants b) Providing compensation for participants time c) Less invasive and less sensitive questionnaires d) All of the above 6. External validity means a) The degree to which the inferences drawn from a study can be generalized to a broader population beyond the study population b) The degree to which the observed findings lead to correct inferences about phenomena taking place in the study sample c) The degree to which a test actually measures what it is designed to measure d) The degree to which the findings are reliable 7. Participants may be excluded from the study because of a) Interference with the success of study follow-up b) Ethical concerns c) Interference with the quality of data collection or non-acceptance to participate in the study d) All of the above 8. While choosing the accessible population and the sampling approach for selection of study population, an important factor that we need to consider is a) Simplicity b) Technology c) Feasibility d) Reliability 9. If your research question is related to diagnosis, treatment or prognosis of a severe medical condition, then it is an easy and costeffective way to recruit the study population from the community a) True b) False 10. Reasons for interference with the success of follow-up in a study may include a) Migration of some study participants from the study area b) Marriage of some of the female study participants because of which they might move out of the study area c) Refusals for follow-up d) All of the above 11. The population defined by clinical and demographic characteristics is called a) Target population b) Accessible population Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 1 Assignment 13 c) Subset d) Study sample 12. The population defined by geographical and temporal characteristics is called as a) Target population b) Accessible population c) Subset d) Sample size 13. Random errors can be effectively handled by a) Randomisation b) Representativeness c) Adequate sample size d) All of the above 14. A researcher found an inference about a particular disease of interest. If he/she wants to generalize the results, it is important to have a) Internal validity b) External validity c) Feasibility d) Accuracy 15. Reasons for interference with the success of follow-up in a study may include a) Out-migration of some study participants from the study area b) Marriage of some of the female study participants because of which they might move out of the study area c) Refusals for follow-up d) All of the above 16. Less invasive and less sensitive questionnaires will a) Increase the power b) Decrease the power c) Improve the significance d) Reduce the non-response 17. The external validity in a research study means a) The degree to which the observed findings lead to correct inferences about phenomena taking place in the study sample b) The degree to which a test actually measures what it is designed to measure c) The degree to which the inferences drawn from a study can be generalized to a broader population beyond the study population d) The degree to which the findings are reliable 18. The degree to which the observed findings lead to correct inferences about phenomena of interest in the study sample is a) Reliability b) Feasibility c) Internal validity d) External validity 19. Which factor is important to consider while choosing the accessible population and the sampling approach? a) Feasibility b) Sensitivity c) Specificity d) Reliability 20. The participants may be excluded from the study because of a) Interference with the success of study follow-up b) Ethical concerns c) Interference with the quality of data collection d) All of the above 21. Which of the following helps to minimize the random error in a research study? a) Limited study duration b) Adequate sample size c) Adequate budget d) More than six investigators 22. Representativeness of the study participants similar to the population of interest can help in which of the following aspects of a research study? a) Generalizability of the findings Compiled By Dr. Vimesh Mistry (Medical College Baroda) 2 Assignment 13 b) Internal validity c) Reduce information bias d) Minimize recall bias 23. An investigator intends to estimate the prevalence of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) among circumcised children (
Report "BCBR MCQs With Answers"
Basic Course In Biomedical Research Answers Pdf
Basic Course In Biomedical Research Question Bank: It Covers 650+ Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) In Exam Mode And Practice Mode For The Final ...
ICMR School of Public Health
BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH
An Online Course for Medical/Dental Postgraduates and Teachers in Medical/Dental Institutions in India
As mandated by the National Medical Commission and Dental Council of India
Medical Postgraduates (MD, MS, MCH, DM) admitted from Academic Year 2019-2020 onwards. Teachers in medical institutions
Self-Paced; enroll and complete the course at any time
- Video lectures
- Presentation slides
- Additiontal resources
Participants who successfully secure a score of 50% or above in the final proctored exam will be awarded an e-verifiable course completion certificate. Click here to get your certificate, if you have not received after completing the course successfully.
About the course
In order to improve the research skills of Indian medical postgraduates (PG) and teachers in medical institutions, the National Medical Commission (NMC, erstwhile Medical Council of India) has mandated a uniform research methodology course. This online course, “Basic Course in Biomedical Research”, will be offered by ICMR-National Institute of Epidemiology (ICMR-NIE), Chennai. The course will explain the fundamental concepts of research methodology in health. It will be delivered through video lectures and reading materials. Certification will be done based on lecture wise assignments and a final proctored exam.
- Medical teachers (12 Feb 2020)
- Medical postgraduates (11 Dec 2019)
- Medical postgraduates (09 July 2019)
Course Coordination Committee
Dr. Siddarth Ramji
Chairman mamc, new delhi, dr. shally awasthi, member kgmc, lucknow, dr. vijay oza, member nmc-pgmeb, dr. manoj v. murhekar, member icmr nominee icmr-nie, dr. p. manickam, member bcbr course coordinator icmr-nie.
Dr. Sanjay Mehendale
Md, mph, fams, fimsa, face, dr. manoj murhekar, dr. r. ramakrishnan, msc, phd, mae, dr. prabhdeep kaur , dr. tarun bhatnagar, md, phd, pgdbe, bsms, msc, phd, dr. p. ganeshkumar , dr. sirshendu chaudhuri, dr. rizwan s.a, dr. k. jeyashree.
Dr. Sharan Murali
Scientist - B
Dr. Navaneeth S Krishna
Dr. V Saravana Kumar
Dr. N Ramya
Dr. Joshua Chadwick
Dr. S. Devika
- Enrollment will open throughout the year
- No deadline for enrolment into the course
- No deadline for submission of assignments
- Participants can learn on their own pace and schedule
- Once you secure the cut off scores in assignments (50% in every assignment for 23 lectures), candidates will become eligible for exam registration.
- Candidates can then register for the proctored exam for the next available date
click here to enroll
Out of 25 lectures, the first 23 lectures will have online assignments consisting of 10 Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) each. A minimum score of 50% in every assignment is required to register for the final proctored exam.
Final Proctored Exam
When a participant successfully secures the minimum score of 50% in every assignment for 23 lectures, the exam registration link for the next available date will be provided. To register for examination, the participant will have to fill-up an online form and pay the examination fees of Rs.1000 online. The city-wise list of examination centres will be made available at the time of registration. Securing a minimum score of 50% in the proctored exam is necessary to receive the pass certificate.
Participants who successfully secure a score of 50% or above in the final proctored exam will be awarded an e-verifiable course completion certificate
Conceptualizing a research study
- Introduction to health research
- Formulating research question, hypothesis and objectives
- Literature review
Epidemiological consideraions in designing a research study
- Measures of disease frequency
- Descriptive study designs
- Analytical study designs
- Experimental study designs
- Validity of Epidemiological studies
- Qualitative research methods: An overview
Biostatistical considerations in designing a research study
- Measures of study variable
- Sampling methods
- Calculating sample size and power
Planning a research study
- Selection and study population
- Study plan and project management
- Designing data collection tools
- Principles of data collection tools
- Data management
- Overview of data analysis
Ethical issues in a research study
- Ethical framework for health research
- Conducting clinical trials
Writing a research protocol
- Preparing a concept paper for research projects
- Elements of a protocol for research studies
- Publication ethics
- Manuscript writing
- Grant proposal writing
Frequently Asked Questions
You can enrol for the course if you are an medical postgraduate or a teacher in a medical institution, recognized by the National Medical Commission (NMC).
You can enroll for the course if you are a dental postgraduate or a teacher in a dental college, recognized by the Dental Council of India.
As per the MCI notice dated 9 July 2019, BCBR is mandatory for Medical Postgraduates admitted from July 2019 onwards. Medical Postgraduates include those pursuing MD/MS in a medical college approved by the National Medical Commission (NMC).
As per the Gazette of India notification dated 12 February 2020 for ‘Minimum Qualifications for Teachers In Medical Institutions’ approved by the National Medical Commission (NMC), BCBR is mandatory for medical teachers for their promotion.
No. All other interested candidates including medical undergraduate students, clinical/public health/ laboratory researchers, physicians, research associates, allied health professionals, scientists, statisticians, ethics committee members, project managers and those interested in health research can enroll for the ‘Health Research Fundamentals’ (Please follow ICMR-NIE website for the same- https://nie.gov.in/icmr_sph/HRF.html This course is also run by the ICMR- National Institute of Epidemiology.
• Step 1 – Go to https://onlinecourses.nptel.ac.in/noc22_md01/preview
• Step 2 – Click on the tab "JOIN" seen on the right-hand corner
• Step 3 – Use your pre-existing Google or Microsoft account to login. (Please use the same email ID till the end of the course. Do not create a new account if you forget the password.)
• Step 4 – Fill “My Profile” and click SAVE.
For further details watch tutorial on “how to enrol” https://youtu.be/e_jaFbQT2xU
Yes. After you sign in, you can click on ‘My Profile’ under which there is an option called ‘EDIT PROFILE’. You may click on it to edit the relevant details. However, you cannot change your email ID.
For further details watch tutorial on “how to sign in, course tour and edit profile” https://youtu.be/wFcTtwK39DY
Please use your regular Email as login ID. It is always advisable to remember your password. If you forget your password, you can retrieve your login credentials by using "Forgot your password?". However, if you forget the login ID, kindly send us an email or call our office to retrieve your login email ID.
For further details watch tutorial on “how to handle issues on forgot email id and password” https://youtu.be/sTG1SlAAsHw
• Step 1: Sign in to the course page https://onlinecourses.nptel.ac.in/noc22_md01/preview
• Step 2: After signing in using your login ID and password, click “Basic course in Biomedical Research” under Course outline in the top left of the course page.
• Step 3: In the left panel, all the 25 lectures will be available. Click to open the intended lecture.
• Step 4: Below each lecture, find “Quiz: Assignment” for that lecture.
• Step 5: Click on the “Quiz: Assignment” which you would like to take. The assignment page will open.
• Step 6: Complete the assignment by choosing the appropriate answer.
• Step 7: Verify your answers before submitting and click “Submit Answers”.
• Step 8: Immediately after submission, you will get the scores.
If you have scored the minimum eligibility of 50%, you can move to the next assignment.
If you have not scored the minimum eligibility of 50%, you can click on the ' Retake Test ' at your convenience. During the retest you will get a new set of 10 MCQs.
• You may submit the assignments any number of times until you get the minimum eligibility score of 50%. No restriction to take the retest.
• You will not be allowed to resubmit the assignment once the minimum eligibility is met.
• There is no negative marking.
For further details watch tutorial on “How to access course materials” https://youtu.be/GHcy660N-oM
and “how to submit assignments” https://youtu.be/MeYUruIdD5k
I n two ways you can check the assignment scores.
- Once you submit the assignment you will get the score for the assignment submitted.
- Click on the ‘Progress’ button on your course page, the lecture-wise assignment score will be visible to you.
Please follow the steps to access the course material.
1. Access course home page from the link: https://onlinecourses.nptel.ac.in/noc21_md05/preview
2. Login using the e-mail ID that was used to enrol for the course
3. Click on your user ID on the right side of login page then click on "MY COURSES" tab
4. Your course page will open, click on "Go to course" tab
5. On the left panel, click on “Basic Course in Biomedical Research” tab
6. Click the download link at the bottom of the page. This will take you to a new page where all the course materials including lectures, transcripts, and assignments are available for downloading.
You may follow the steps below for posting queries on “Basic Course in Biomedical Research”
After accessing the course materials
1. If you have any queries/comments to be addressed after accessing the course material you can post them in the discussion forum.
2. The discussion forum can be accessed by clicking on “Ask a Question” tab in the menu bar of the “Basic Course in Biomedical Research” home page, followed by selecting the appropriate lecture from the pre-existing discussion threads.
3. You can then type your query/comment in “click here to reply”. Once you have finished typing, click on “post” to get a response from Faculty/Teaching assistants.
4. Please post any queries that you have only in the discussion threads assigned for that particular lecture [for e.g., if you have a query related to lecture 22; you need to find a thread named: “Queries/comments for lecture 22. Elements of a protocol for research studies” and post your queries therein. This will help our Faculty/Teaching assistants in noticing immediately and addressing the queries expeditiously]
5. Once you post a query, our Teaching Assistants will respond to you.
6. Please confine your questions to the lectures. It is beyond our scope to respond to any other queries.
For further details watch tutorial on “how to ask queries on lecture” https://youtu.be/RB8n-Xhzo0c
Email ID: [email protected] (All technical queries)
The registration for the certification exam will be open only to those learners who enrol for the course and secure more than or equal to 50% in every assignment for 23 lectures. A registration fee of 1000 INR should be paid to appear for the proctored exam. However, 50% of this fee will be waived for candidates belong to the SC/ST category, and persons with more than 40% disability. All exam related information will be posted in the announcements section of the course page.
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Bcbr mcqs with answers copy.pdf, conducting clinical trials.mp4, study plan and project management.mp4, measurement of study variables.mp4, calculating sample size and power.mp4, principles of data collection.mp4, introduction to health research.mp4, literature review.mp4, publication ethics.mp4, measures of disease frequency.mp4, overview of data analysis.mp4, qualitative research methods_ an overview.mp4, experimental study designs_ clinical trials.mp4, elements of a protocol for research studies.mp4, selection of study population.mp4, validity of epidemiological studies.mp4, formulating research question.mp4, designing data collection tools.mp4, preparing a concept paper for research projects.mp4, ethical framework for health research.mp4, sampling methods.mp4, collections of telegram channels.
NPTEL, BCBR, assignment 1, answer key, introduction to health research, December 2021#BCBR #NPTEL #BCBR #answerkey assignment 1,cycle 5.
NPTEL, BCBR, assignment 1, answer key, introduction to health research,December 2021.
Basic course in Biomedical Research |Cycle 5 | Assignment -1| MCQs with Answers | BCBR |Note: Correct answer for Q.7 is Option C. By
Answer keys for Assignment 1: Introduction to health research. (The correct answer is underlined in bold text). 1. Any research done in a controlled
Assignment 1 1) Which of the following areas can be included in health research? i ... a) Connecting synonyms of one key concept b) Connecting different key
Cycle-4 Basic Course of Biomedical Research Answer Key. ... Basic BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH Cycle 1, 2 3 MCQs with Answers Assignment 1 1) Which
I got a certificate for Design and Analysis of Algorithm (78%) by NPTEL course I mentioned it in my resume for 2 interview . 1.Cognizant : I was not asked to
It will be delivered through video lectures and reading materials. Certification will be done based on lecture wise assignments and a final proctored exam.
Answer keys will NOT be provided for the assignments. A minimum score of 50% in each assignment is required to be. “eligible” to register for the proctored exam
channel telegram audience statistics of Bcbr cycle 7 telegram channel. ... Reminder for assignment submission 1. ... Bcbr cycle 5 answer key.